Jamb 2023 Questions And Answers

The keyword “JAMB 2025 Questions and Answers” has likely dominated Nigerian internet searches throughout 2025 and 2026. This immense interest stems from the Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) exam, a crucial gateway to Nigerian tertiary institutions. But what lies behind this search term, and is it a legitimate pursuit of knowledge or an unethical attempt at a shortcut?

Jamb 2025 Questions And Answers

The JAMB exam assesses candidates’ knowledge in four core subjects: English Language, Mathematics, and two chosen elective subjects. Performing well is crucial for securing admission into desired universities and courses. Naturally, students seek every avenue to prepare and maximize their scores. Click here to access JAMB’s past questions and answers.

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JAMB 2025 Practice Questions – Use of English

Comprehension Passage Practice

Passage (summary):
It was a bright morning when Mr. Bello, a teacher of over twenty years, walked into the classroom with a wide smile. The students were eager to learn as he began the lesson on honesty. He used stories from his personal life to explain how honesty had opened doors for him in unexpected ways.

Question 1:
What lesson did Mr. Bello teach in the classroom?
A. Punctuality
B. Discipline
C. Honesty
D. Generosity
Answer: C. Honesty

Question 2:
What teaching method did Mr. Bello use?
A. Role-playing
B. Lecturing with textbooks
C. Storytelling from personal experiences
D. Watching a video
Answer: C. Storytelling from personal experiences

Question 3:
According to the passage, how did the students feel about the lesson?
A. Uninterested
B. Eager
C. Confused
D. Distracted
Answer: B. Eager

Lexis and Structure Practice

Question 4:
Choose the word that best completes the sentence:
The principal advised the students to always be ______ in their studies.
A. devoted
B. devote
C. devoting
D. devotion
Answer: A. devoted

Question 5:
Choose the correct expression:
Neither the teacher nor the students ______ aware of the change.
A. is
B. are
C. were
D. has
Answer: B. are

Antonyms (Opposites)

Question 6:
Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word:
The manager gave a stern warning to the staff.
A. kind
B. cruel
C. serious
D. harsh
Answer: A. kind

Synonyms (Similar Words)

Question 7:
Choose the word that is similar in meaning to the underlined word:
She is a very diligent worker.
A. lazy
B. hardworking
C. rude
D. careless
Answer: B. Hardworking

Idioms

Question 8:
Choose the meaning of the idiom:
He always beats around the bush when asked direct questions.
A. Gets angry
B. Talks confidently
C. Avoids the main issue
D. Lies blatantly
Answer: C. Avoids the main issue

Mathematics Questions and Answers

Question 1: Indices

Simplify:

$(23×42)÷22(2^3 \times 4^2) \div 2^2$

A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 8
Answer: B. 32
Explanation:

$23×42=8×16=128⇒128÷22=128÷4=322^3 \times 4^2 = 8 \times 16 = 128 \quad \Rightarrow 128 \div 2^2 = 128 \div 4 = 32$

Question 2: Algebra – Simplification

Simplify:

$(3 x - 2) (x + 4)$

A. 3x² + 12x – 8
B. 3x² + 10x – 8
C. 3x² + 10x + 8
D. 3x² + 2x – 8
Answer: B. 3x² + 10x – 8
Explanation:

$3x \cdot x + 3x \cdot 4 – 2 \cdot x – 2 \cdot 4 = 3x^2 + 12x – 2x – 8 = 3x^2 + 10x – 8$

Question 3: Geometry – Angles

Find the value of angle $x$ in a triangle with angles 65°, 70°, and $x$ .

A. 55°
B. 45°
C. 50°
D. 40°
Answer: A. 45°
Explanation:
The sum of angles in a triangle = 180°
So,

$x = 180 - (65 + 70) = 180 - 135 = 45°$

Question 4: Statistics – Mean

Find the mean of the numbers: 4, 7, 9, 6, and 4.

A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 4
Answer: A. 6
Explanation:

$Mean=4+7+9+6+45=305=6\text{Mean} = \frac{4 + 7 + 9 + 6 + 4}{5} = \frac{30}{5} = 6$

Question 5: Simple Interest

Find the simple interest on ₦20,000 for 2 years at 5% per annum.

A. ₦1,000
B. ₦2,000
C. ₦3,000
D. ₦5,000
Answer: A. ₦2,000
Explanation:

$SI=P×R×T100=20,000×5×2100=₦2,000\text{SI} = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100} = \frac{20,000 \times 5 \times 2}{100} = ₦2,000$

Question 6: Probability

A dice is rolled once. What is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?

A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 1/6
Answer: B. 1/3
Explanation:
Numbers greater than 4 = 5, 6 → 2 outcomes
Total possible outcomes = 6

$\frac{2}{6} = \frac{1}{3}$

Question 7: Number Bases

Convert the binary number 1101 to base 10.

A. 11
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
Answer: B. 13
Explanation:

$11012=1×23+1×22+0×21+1×20=8+4+0+1=131101_2 = 1 \times 2^3 + 1 \times 2^2 + 0 \times 2^1 + 1 \times 2^0 = 8 + 4 + 0 + 1 = 13$

Question 8: Quadratic Equation

Solve:

$x^2 – 5x + 6 = 0$

A. x = 2 or x = 3
B. x = -2 or x = -3
C. x = 1 or x = 6
D. x = -1 or x = -6
Answer: A. x = 2 or x = 3
Explanation:
Factor the equation:

$x=3x^2 – 5x + 6 = (x – 2)(x – 3) = 0 \Rightarrow x = 2 \text{ or } x = 3$

Question 9: Ratio

Divide ₦6000 between A and B in the ratio of 3:2.

A. A = ₦2400, B = ₦3600
B. A = ₦3600, B = ₦2400
C. A = ₦3000, B = ₦3000
D. A = ₦4000, B = ₦2000
Answer: B. A = ₦3600, B = ₦2400
Explanation:
Sum of ratio parts = 3 + 2 = 5
A gets: $35×6000=₦3600\frac{3}{5} \times 6000 = ₦3600$
B gets: $25×6000=₦2400\frac{2}{5} \times 6000 = ₦2400$

Question 10: Simultaneous Equations

Solve:

$2 x + y = 10 x - y = 1$

A. x = 3, y = 4
B. x = 4, y = 2
C. x = 2, y = 6
D. x = 3, y = 5
Answer: B. x = 4, y = 2
Explanation:
From the second equation:
$x = y + 1$
Substitute into the first:

$\Rightarrow 2y + 2 + y = 10 \Rightarrow 3y = 8 \Rightarrow y = 2.67$

But this is not among the options. Let’s try the elimination method instead:

From (1): $2 x + y = 10$
From (2): $x - y = 1$

Add both:
$\Rightarrow x = 11/3$ – also not among options.
Let’s try correcting this:

(2): $\Rightarrow x = y + 1$
Sub into (1):
$\Rightarrow 2y + 2 + y = 10 \Rightarrow 3y = 8 \Rightarrow y = 2.67$

There seems to be a mismatch with the given options; the correct answer should be $x = 3.67, y = 2.67$ , but the closest and correct integer solution based on revised equations should be:

Try:
Let’s use a new equation set instead for clarity:

Let’s correct the question:
Revised Question 10:
Solve:

$\quad \text{and} \quad x – y = 2$

Add both equations:

$\Rightarrow x = 4 \Rightarrow y = 6 – 4 = 2$

Answer: x = 4, y = 2 (Option B)

Question 11: Trigonometry

Find the value of sin 30°.

A. 0.5
B. 0.86
C. 1.0
D. 0.75
Answer: A. 0.5
Explanation:
By standard trigonometric values:

$sin⁡30∘=12=0.5\sin 30^\circ = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5$

Question 12: Logarithms

If $log_{10} x = 2$ , find the value of $x$ .

A. 100
B. 10
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A. 100
Explanation:

$log⁡10x=2⇒x=102=100\log_{10} x = 2 \Rightarrow x = 10^2 = 100$

Biology Questions and Answers

Question 1: Cell Structure

Which of the following is not a component of the animal cell?

A. Cell membrane
B. Mitochondrion
C. Cell wall
D. Nucleus
Answer: C. Cell wall
Explanation:
Cell walls are found in plant cells, not animal cells.

Question 2: Classification

Which of these organisms belongs to the Kingdom Monera?

A. Paramecium
B. Spirogyra
C. Amoeba
D. Bacteria
Answer: D. Bacteria
Explanation:
Monera is a kingdom that includes prokaryotic organisms, especially bacteria.

Question 3: Nutrition in Plants

What is the primary pigment required for photosynthesis?

A. Carotene
B. Chlorophyll
C. Xanthophyll
D. Anthocyanin
Answer: B. Chlorophyll
Explanation:
Chlorophyll is essential for trapping sunlight during photosynthesis.

Question 4: Human Circulatory System

Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood?

A. Pulmonary artery
B. Vena cava
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Renal vein
Answer: C. Pulmonary vein
Explanation:
The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

Question 5: Reproduction

In humans, fertilization occurs in the:

A. Ovary
B. Uterus
C. Vagina
D. Fallopian tube
Answer: D. Fallopian tube
Explanation:
Fertilization of the egg by the sperm occurs in the fallopian tube.

Question 6: Ecology

An organism that feeds on dead organic matter is called a:

A. Producer
B. Carnivore
C. Saprophyte
D. Herbivore
Answer: C. Saprophyte
Explanation:
Saprophytes break down and feed on dead and decaying matter.

Question 7: Genetics

How many chromosomes are present in a normal human somatic cell?

A. 23
B. 46
C. 48
D. 92
Answer: B. 46
Explanation:
Humans have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs) in each body (somatic) cell.

Question 8: Adaptation

The presence of thick cuticles on desert plants helps to:

A. Absorb more sunlight
B. Reduce water loss
C. Enhance photosynthesis
D. Increase growth rate
Answer: B. Reduce water loss
Explanation:
Thick cuticles reduce transpiration, conserving water in dry environments.

Question 9: Respiration

Which of the following is the correct word equation for aerobic respiration?

A. Glucose + Oxygen → Lactic acid + Energy
B. Glucose → Alcohol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
C. Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
D. Glucose → Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
Answer: C. Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
Explanation:
This is the correct aerobic respiration equation. It occurs in the presence of oxygen.

Question 10: Transport System in Plants

Which of the following tissues is responsible for transporting water in plants?

A. Phloem
B. Cambium
C. Xylem
D. Cortex
Answer: C. Xylem
Explanation:
Xylem transports water and minerals from the roots to other parts of the plant.

Question 11: Excretion

Which of the following is excreted through the lungs?

A. Urea
B. Water
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Ammonia
Answer: C. Carbon dioxide
Explanation:
The lungs remove carbon dioxide, a waste product of respiration.

Question 12: Sense Organs

The part of the eye responsible for controlling the amount of light entering the eye is the:

A. Retina
B. Iris
C. Cornea
D. Lens
Answer: B. Iris
Explanation:
The iris adjusts the size of the pupil to control light entering the eye.

Question 13: Reproduction in Plants

Which of these methods is a form of asexual reproduction?

A. Pollination
B. Fertilization
C. Budding
D. Germination
Answer: C. Budding
Explanation:
Budding is an asexual process where a new organism forms from the parent without gametes.

Question 14: Evolution

The theory of natural selection was proposed by:

A. Gregor Mendel
B. Charles Darwin
C. Carl Linnaeus
D. Louis Pasteur
Answer: B. Charles Darwin
Explanation:
Darwin’s theory of natural selection explains how organisms evolve.

Question 15: Food Chain

Which of these is always at the beginning of a food chain?

A. Carnivore
B. Herbivore
C. Producer
D. Omnivore
Answer: C. Producer
Explanation:
Producers (like green plants) make their food and start the food chain.

Chemistry Questions and Answers

Question 1: Atomic Structure

What is the number of electrons in the ion of an element with atomic number 11 and a charge of +1?

A. 11
B. 10
C. 12
D. 9
Answer: B. 10
Explanation:
An atom of sodium (Na) has 11 electrons. A +1 charge means it lost 1 electron, leaving 10 electrons.

Question 2: Periodic Table

Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Neon
D. Chlorine
Answer: C. Neon
Explanation:
Neon is a Group 18 element with a stable octet, making it a noble gas.

Question 3: Chemical Bonding

The bond formed between two non-metals is:

A. Metallic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Hydrogen bond
Answer: B. Covalent bond
Explanation:
Covalent bonds form between non-metals through the sharing of electrons.

Question 4: Acids, Bases & Salts

Which of the following is a weak acid?

A. HCl
B. H₂SO₄
C. CH₃COOH
D. HNO₃
Answer: C. CH₃COOH
Explanation:
Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak organic acid, meaning it only partially ionizes in water.

Question 5: Organic Chemistry

What is the IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₃?

A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane
D. Butane
Answer: C. Propane
Explanation:
CH₃CH₂CH₃ has three carbon atoms, making it propane.

Question 6: States of Matter

Which of these explains why a gas fills its container?

A. Gases are dense
B. Gas particles have low kinetic energy
C. Gas particles move randomly and rapidly
D. Gas particles are packed closely
Answer: C. Gas particles move randomly and rapidly
Explanation:
This random, fast movement allows gases to expand and fill any container.

Question 7: Electrolysis

During electrolysis, anions move toward the:

A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Electrolyte
D. Electrode
Answer: A. Anode
Explanation:
Anions (negatively charged) are attracted to the anode (positive electrode).

Question 8: Gas Laws

According to Boyle’s law, the relationship between pressure and volume of a gas is:

A. Direct
B. Inverse
C. Constant
D. Fluctuating
Answer: B. Inverse
Explanation:
Boyle’s law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume at a constant temperature.

Question 9: Separation Techniques

Which method is best used to separate a mixture of salt and sand?

A. Filtration followed by evaporation
B. Sublimation
C. Distillation
D. Crystallization
Answer: A. Filtration followed by evaporation
Explanation:
Salt dissolves in water, but sand doesn’t. Filter out the sand, then evaporate the water to recover salt.

Question 10: Chemical Equilibrium

In a reversible reaction, an increase in pressure will favor the side with:

A. More gas molecules
B. Fewer gas molecules
C. Equal gas molecules
D. No gas molecules
Answer: B. Less gas molecules
Explanation:
According to Le Chatelier’s Principle, increasing pressure shifts equilibrium to the side with fewer gas particles.

Question 11: Oxidation and Reduction

Which of the following represents an oxidation reaction?

A. Loss of hydrogen
B. Gain of electrons
C. Loss of oxygen
D. Decrease in oxidation number
Answer: A. Loss of hydrogen
Explanation:
Oxidation is defined as the loss of hydrogen, loss of electrons, or gain of oxygen.

Question 12: pH and Indicators

What color does methyl orange turn in a basic solution?

A. Red
B. Orange
C. Yellow
D. Pink
Answer: C. Yellow
Explanation:
Methyl orange is yellow in alkaline (basic) solutions and red in acidic solutions.

Question 13: Rates of Reaction

Which of these will increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

A. Decreasing temperature
B. Using a larger beaker
C. Using a catalyst
D. Removing reactants
Answer: C. Using a catalyst
Explanation:
Catalysts speed up chemical reactions without being consumed.

Question 14: Water Treatment

Which method is used to remove hardness from water?

A. Filtration
B. Boiling
C. Sedimentation
D. Chlorination
Answer: B. Boiling
Explanation:
Temporary hardness (due to bicarbonates) can be removed by boiling.

Question 15: Atomic Number and Mass Number

An element has 17 protons and 18 neutrons. What is its mass number?

A. 35
B. 34
C. 36
D. 17
Answer: A. 35
Explanation:
Mass number = protons + neutrons = 17 + 18 = 35.

Question 16: Chemical Symbols and Formulas

What is the formula of aluminum oxide?

A. AlO
B. Al₂O₃
C. Al₃O₂
D. AlO₃
Answer: B. Al₂O₃
Explanation:
Al has a valency of 3, and O has a valency of 2. Crisscrossing gives Al₂O₃.

Government Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1: Theories of Government

The theory of separation of powers was popularized by:

A. Aristotle
B. John Locke
C. Baron de Montesquieu
D. Jean Jacques Rousseau
Answer: C. Baron de Montesquieu
Explanation:
He proposed the separation of powers into the legislative, executive, and judiciary arms to prevent tyranny.

Question 2: Forms of Government

A government controlled by a few powerful individuals is known as:

A. Monarchy
B. Oligarchy
C. Theocracy
D. Democracy
Answer: B. Oligarchy
Explanation:
An oligarchy is a government in which power rests with a small elite group.

Question 3: Political Ideologies

Which of these ideologies supports government ownership of the means of production?

A. Capitalism
B. Communism
C. Fascism
D. Feudalism
Answer: B. Communism
Explanation:
Communism advocates state ownership of all means of production and the elimination of class distinctions.

Question 4: Rule of Law

The rule of law means:

A. Judges make the laws
B. Law is subject to the president
C. No one is above the law
D. Lawyers rule the country
Answer: C. No one is above the law
Explanation:
Under the rule of law, all individuals and institutions are subject to and accountable under the law.

Question 5: Types of Constitution

A constitution that can only be amended by a special procedure is called:

A. Flexible
B. Unwritten
C. Rigid
D. Conventional
Answer: C. Rigid
Explanation:
A rigid constitution is difficult to amend and requires a special process, often involving supermajorities.

Question 6: Citizenship

Which of the following is a means of acquiring citizenship by birth?

A. Being born in the country
B. Living in a country for 15 years
C. Marriage to a citizen
D. Registration
Answer: A. Being born in the country
Explanation:
Citizenship by birth is acquired by being born within a country’s territory, especially if parents are citizens.

Question 7: Political Parties

The main function of a political party is to:

A. Oppose the government
B. Educate students
C. Form a government
D. Organize protests
Answer: C. Form a government
Explanation:
Political parties seek to gain power through elections and form governments.

Question 8: Electoral System

The body that conducts elections in Nigeria is the:

A. NYSC
B. EFCC
C. INEC
D. ICPC
Answer: C. INEC
Explanation:
The Independent National Electoral Commission (INEC) is responsible for organizing elections in Nigeria.

Question 9: Sovereignty

Which of the following best defines sovereignty?

A. Power shared between regions
B. Supreme power of the state
C. Power held by citizens
D. Power given to the army
Answer: B. Supreme power of the state
Explanation:
Sovereignty is the absolute power of a state to make and enforce laws without external control.

Question 10: Separation of Powers

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of separation of powers?

A. Prevents abuse of power
B. Promotes dictatorship
C. Ensures checks and balances
D. Promotes efficiency in governance
Answer: B. Promotes dictatorship
Explanation:
Separation of powers aims to avoid dictatorship by distributing power among the three arms of government.

Question 11: Checks and Balances

Checks and balances operate best in a:

A. Unitary system
B. Parliamentary system
C. Federal system
D. Monarchical system
Answer: C. Federal system
Explanation:
A federal system divides power between different levels of government, allowing checks and balances to function effectively.

Question 12: Military Rule

Which of the following is a feature of military rule?

A. Rule of law
B. Supremacy of the constitution
C. Decrees and edicts
D. Electoral mandates
Answer: C. Decrees and edicts
Explanation:
In military regimes, governance is often based on decrees and edicts, not democratic laws.

Question 13: Pressure Groups

Pressure groups influence government policies by:

A. Contesting elections
B. Using military force
C. Lobbying and protests
D. Creating political parties
Answer: C. Lobbying and protests
Explanation:
Pressure groups influence decisions through lobbying, campaigns, or public demonstrations, not by contesting elections.

Question 14: Fundamental Human Rights

One of the fundamental human rights is:

A. Right to vote
B. Right to disobey laws
C. Right to be above the law
D. Right to oppress others
Answer: A. Right to vote
Explanation:
Voting is a civil right that allows citizens to participate in the governance of their country.

Question 15: Local Government

The primary purpose of local government is to:

A. Provide military support
B. Serve as a watchdog
C. Bring governance closer to the people
D. Promote party politics
Answer: C. Bring governance closer to the people
Explanation:
Local governments aim to deliver services and facilitate development at the grassroots level.

Question 16: Rule of Law in Practice

The concept of the rule of law was first popularized by:

A. John Locke
B. Baron de Montesquieu
C. A.V. Dicey
D. Harold Laski
Answer: C. A.V. Dicey
Explanation:
A.V. Dicey is known for articulating the three principles of the rule of law: the supremacy of the law, equality before the law, and the rights of individuals.

CRS Questions and Answers (with Explanations)

Question 1: Creation Story

According to Genesis 1, God created human beings on the:

A. Fourth day
B. Fifth day
C. Sixth day
D. Seventh day
Answer: C. Sixth day
Explanation:
Genesis 1:26–31 clearly states that man was created on the sixth day after animals were formed.

Question 2: Cain and Abel

Cain’s offering was rejected by God because:

A. It was not what God asked for
B. He gave it grudgingly
C. It was not the first fruit
D. He gave it too late
Answer: B. He gave it grudgingly
Explanation:
God values the heart and attitude of the giver. Cain’s offering lacked faith and sincerity (Genesis 4:3–5).

Question 3: Abraham’s Call

What was the primary reason God called Abraham?

A. To become the king of Israel
B. To lead the Israelites out of Egypt
C. To be a father of many nations
D. To build the temple
Answer: C. To be a father of many nations
Explanation:
Genesis 12:1–3 shows God’s call and promise to make Abraham the father of many nations.

Question 4: Joseph’s Rise in Egypt

Joseph interpreted Pharaoh’s dreams and became:

A. Head servant
B. Priest of On
C. Governor of Egypt
D. General of the army
Answer: C. Governor of Egypt
Explanation:
Genesis 41:41 – Pharaoh made Joseph the second-in-command over all of Egypt.

Question 5: Ten Commandments

The Ten Commandments were given to Moses on:

A. Mount Horeb
B. Mount Nebo
C. Mount Sinai
D. Mount Olives
Answer: C. Mount Sinai
Explanation:
Exodus 20 clearly states that God gave the commandments to Moses on Mount Sinai.

Question 6: The Judges of Israel

Which of these was not a judge in Israel?

A. Samson
B. Deborah
C. Samuel
D. Saul
Answer: D. Saul
Explanation:
Saul was the first king of Israel, not a judge. Judges ruled before the monarchy began.

Question 7: David and Goliath

David defeated Goliath using:

A. A spear
B. A sword
C. A bow and arrow
D. A sling and stone
Answer: D. A sling and stone
Explanation:
1 Samuel 17:49 – David struck Goliath with a stone from his sling.

Question 8: Jesus’ Baptism

At Jesus’ baptism, the Spirit descended in the form of a:

A. Cloud
B. Fire
C. Dove
D. Star
Answer: C. Dove
Explanation:
Matthew 3:16 – The Holy Spirit descended like a dove when Jesus was baptized.

Question 9: Temptation of Jesus

How many times was Jesus tempted by the devil?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: B. Three
Explanation:
Matthew 4:1–11 – Jesus faced three temptations: turning stones to bread, jumping from the temple, and worshipping Satan.

Question 10: Fruit of the Spirit

“Love, joy, peace…” are part of:

A. Beatitudes
B. Fruit of the Spirit
C. Gifts of the Spirit
D. Ten Commandments
Answer: B. Fruit of the Spirit
Explanation:
Galatians 5:22–23 – These are the fruit of the Spirit developed in believers.

Literature-in-English Questions and Answers

Question 1: Literary Devices

A figure of speech in which an inanimate object is given human qualities is:

A. Simile
B. Metaphor
C. Irony
D. Personification
Answer: D. Personification
Explanation:
Personification gives human attributes to non-human objects. Example: The wind whispered through the trees.

Question 2: Types of Drama

A drama that ends unhappily for the main character is called:

A. Comedy
B. Satire
C. Tragedy
D. Farce
Answer: C. Tragedy
Explanation:
A tragedy is a serious play with a sad ending, usually involving the downfall of the protagonist due to a flaw or fate.

Question 3: Literary Terms

A story in which characters represent abstract ideas like good or evil is:

A. Autobiography
B. Allegory
C. Ballad
D. Biography
Answer: B. Allegory
Explanation:
An allegory uses characters and events symbolically to convey moral, political, or spiritual messages (e.g., Animal Farm by George Orwell).

Question 4: Prose Elements

The part of a novel that introduces the setting and characters is the:

A. Climax
B. Conflict
C. Exposition
D. Resolution
Answer: C. Exposition
Explanation:
The exposition gives background information at the beginning of a literary work.

Question 5: Types of Poetry

A poem that mourns the death of a person is called:

A. Ode
B. Epic
C. Sonnet
D. Elegy
Answer: D. Elegy
Explanation:
An elegy is a mournful, reflective poem written to lament someone’s death.

Question 6: African Prose

In Things Fall Apart, the chi of a man is his:

A. Companion
B. Destiny
C. Village
D. God
Answer: B. Destiny
Explanation:
In Chinua Achebe’s novel, a man’s chi is his god or destiny, which influences his success or failure.

Question 7: Drama Terminology

The aside in a play refers to:

A. A comment spoke to the audience
B. The main character’s dialogue
C. Background music
D. The stage direction
Answer: A. A comment spoke to the audience
Explanation:
An aside is a brief remark by a character meant for the audience only, not heard by other characters.

Question 8: Poetry Appreciation

A fourteen-line poem written in iambic pentameter is a:

A. Limerick
B. Ballad
C. Sonnet
D. Ode
Answer: C. Sonnet
Explanation:
A sonnet traditionally has 14 lines with a strict rhyme scheme and meter (often iambic pentameter).

Question 9: African Drama

In The Lion and the Jewel by Wole Soyinka, who represents modernity?

A. Lakunle
B. Sidi
C. Baroka
D. Sadiku
Answer: A. Lakunle
Explanation:
Lakunle is a teacher who represents Western education and modern ideas, contrasting with Baroka’s traditionalism.

Question 10: Literary Criticism

Which of the following terms refers to the struggle between opposing forces?

A. Flashback
B. Conflict
C. Mood
D. Theme
Answer: B. Conflict
Explanation:
Conflict is the central problem or struggle that drives the plot in any literary work.

Economics Questions and Answers (with Explanations)

Question 1: Definition of Economics

Who defined economics as “a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life”?

A. Adam Smith
B. Lionel Robbins
C. Alfred Marshall
D. John Maynard Keynes
Answer: C. Alfred Marshall
Explanation:
Alfred Marshall defined economics as the study of man in the ordinary business of life, focusing on welfare.

Question 2: Basic Economic Problems

Which of the following is not a basic economic problem?

A. What to produce
B. How to produce
C. Who to produce for
D. How to maximize profit
Answer: D. How to maximize profit
Explanation:
The three central economic problems are: what to produce, how to produce, and for whom to produce.

Question 3: Opportunity Cost

Opportunity cost is:

A. The cost of producing one more unit
B. The monetary cost of a good
C. The alternative forgone
D. The profit from a venture
Answer: C. The alternative forgone
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the next best alternative sacrificed when a choice is made.

Question 4: Demand Law

The law of demand states that:

A. As price increases, demand increases
B. As price increases, demand decreases
C. As demand increases, price decreases
D. Demand is unaffected by price
Answer: B. As price increases, demand decreases
Explanation:
There is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded, ceteris paribus.

Question 5: Supply Curve

A movement along the supply curve is caused by:

A. Change in demand
B. Change in supply
C. Change in price
D. Change in production cost
Answer: C. Change in price
Explanation:
A movement along the supply curve happens when the price of the good changes, not other factors.

Question 6: Market Structures

Which market structure features many buyers and sellers, and identical products?

A. Monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopolistic competition
D. Perfect competition
Answer: D. Perfect competition
Explanation:
Perfect competition has many firms selling homogeneous products, with free entry and exit.

Question 7: National Income

Which of the following is not a method of measuring national income?

A. Output method
B. Income method
C. Consumption method
D. Expenditure method
Answer: C. Consumption method
Explanation:
The three major methods are output, income, and expenditure. Consumption is not a direct method.

Question 8: Money Functions

The most important function of money is:

A. Store of value
B. Medium of exchange
C. Unit of account
D. Standard of deferred payment
Answer: B. Medium of exchange
Explanation:
Money’s primary function is to facilitate trade by eliminating the inefficiencies of barter.

Question 9: Inflation

Inflation is best described as:

A. Increase in money supply
B. Persistent rise in the general price level
C. Rise in the cost of living
D. Increase in the price of food
Answer: B. Persistent rise in the general price level
Explanation:
Inflation is a sustained increase in the overall price level, reducing the purchasing power of money.

Question 10: Fiscal Policy

A government’s plan to control the economy using taxation and expenditure is:

A. Monetary policy
B. Structural policy
C. Fiscal policy
D. Exchange rate policy
Answer: C. Fiscal policy
Explanation:
Fiscal policy involves government revenue (taxes) and spending to influence the economy.

Conclusion

The key to effective preparation is understanding the concepts and practicing your problem-solving skills, not simply memorizing leaked answers. By utilizing these legitimate resources, you can gain valuable insights into the exam format, identify frequently tested topics, and improve your overall understanding of the subjects.